Assuming $\text{P} \neq \text{NP}$, which of the following is $\textbf{TRUE}$?

By definition:

• A language $L$ is in $\text{NP-complete}$ if $L \in \text{NP}$ and every problem in $\text{NP}$ is polynomial-time reducible to $L$.

• If any $\text{NP-complete}$ problem could be solved in polynomial time (i.e., if $\text{NP-complete} \cap \text{P} \neq \varnothing$), then every problem in $\text{NP}$ would be solvable in polynomial time, implying $\text{P} = \text{NP}$.

Therefore, under the assumption that $\text{P} \neq \text{NP}$, no $\text{NP-complete}$ problem can belong to $\text{P}$. Hence:

This makes option (B) the correct statement.