What is the logical translation of the following statement? “None of my friends are perfect.”

Let $F(x)$ denote "$x$ is my friend" and $P(x)$ denote "$x$ is perfect".

The statement "None of my friends are perfect" means "There is no person who is both my friend and perfect."

In first-order logic, this is directly translated as: $$eg \exists x (F(x) \land P(x))$$

Equivalently, it can be written as $\forall x (F(x) \rightarroweg P(x))$.

Thus, (D) is the correct translation.